Hi,

I wonder if anyone can provide me with some more insight and
answers to some questions I have please? This may seem a little
long winded but I'd like to explain everything as concisely as
possible, thanks for your patience.

I had Femtosecond Wavefront assisted LASIK surgery on the 24th
March this year (just over a month ago now). My initial refraction
was -3.25 in both eyes and from what I understand this is
classed as mild myopia. At my last check up my right eye was
measured at -1 meaning I have been under corrected and only a
correction of 2.25 has been made. Surely for such a mild
refraction this is actually a long way out especially as the surgery
was Wavefront assisted? Surely the whole point of that is to be
more accurate? From what I had been led to believe this was
more likely to happen to someone with a higher degree of
myopia like -5 and above. Is this normal to be so far out on such
a mild refraction? When I questioned my surgeon about this he
seemed to mumble some sort of explanation but to be honest I
felt he was avoiding the question.

You may have noticed that I mentioned the results in my right
eye only. That is because my left eye is unable to obtain a
reading. I have been told I have deep lamellar keratitis. From
what I am told it is a dense patch of cells (of roughly 2-3mm) in
the centre of my cornea. I had read about DLK and questioned
my surgeon on this and whether he would lift the flap to irrigate
the problem? However, it is apparently not the "Sands of the
Sahara" problem. I am told it is an inflammation of the cornea -
causing me extremely blurry vision both near and far, in fact it's
a constant blur. I had been given Pred Forte to take every 4
hours, and having finished 2 bottles carried on with the FML
course until they too finished earlier this week.

However, more than 1 month down the line I can see no
improvement in this eye. I was told it would improve slowly but I
am begining to lose faith in my surgeon and feel I am being
fobbed off. My questions therefore are has anyone any
experience of this and how did they cope/heal? Why would it
only affect one eye and not both - surely my eyes would react
the same? Can this be caused by something the surgeon did -
for example use too much pressure to hold my eye when making
the flap? I recall one of the nurses sounding concerned and
saying something about the pressure being at 8 and the surgeon
said it should be fine - obviously not I think now! I will obviously
need a re-treatment to get my refraction to 0 and when I
questioned my doctor about the possibility of this problem
hapening again he shook his head and said it was highly
unlikely. Yet, before that he told me he saw this problem in
40-50% of patients! Am I being taken for a mug?

I am due to see him again on the 16th May for another check up,
what should I be asking him? Am I being put at risk of flap melt?
Should my surgeon be doing more to remedy the situation? I
realise there's alot to take in here but if anyone can give me
some help on this I would be most appreciative as this is causing
me great concern.

Many thanks
Salv

Can anybody offer any help? Or am I really as alone in this as I feel?

If your surgeon isnt willing to explain the situation to you, see another surgeon or ophthamologist to evaluate you. Of course itll cost some money but its your eyes were talking about! Do NOT get an enhancement until all your issues have been resolved. Your -3.25 is moderate myopia because its -3 or over. Mild myopia is under -3. Your uncorrected vision was probably in the 20/200 to 20/300 range. undercorrection can happen reguardless of your pescription. High pescriptions regress more. Overcorrections are more likley with low pescriptions but once again, can happen even for high myopes.

Sometimes its better to leave very low residual pescriptions alone. If you are over 35, that -1 is a perk because itll keep you out of reading glasses for a very long time. Enhancements are more surgury with more risks

You are not alone. Many people are suffering from poor refractive
surgery outcomes and complications. I would definitely get a
second opinion at this point. Listen to your gut. If you feel that
your surgeon is not being entirely straight forward you should find
a doctor that you are more comfortable with asap. DLK is caused by
sterile cells under the flap. This is usually treated with topical
medication or a possible flap lift to remove the cells. If you give
your location I'm sure someone can recommend a reputable
surgeon in your area.

FYI: DLK absolutely does not occur in 40% or 50% percent of
patients. DLK is rare.

Apparently this is not DLK as in any infiltrates under the flap. More
like a scarring in the cornea where the see through part is slightly
opaque. I live in the UK near London, I realise this is mainly an
American board but just wanted some feedback. I think you're right
I'm going to get someone else to look at it, I'm just not happy with
this wait and see game - I feel more could be done. I just cant
understand how one eye would react so badly and the other is
perfectly fine? This just makes me think even more that something
went wrong during the op.